GRANVILLE Posted 2 February , 2020 Share Posted 2 February , 2020 In the wake of last Friday and the UK's departure from the EU, one of the comments I heard concerned the departure time of 11pm; the point being made that even this will have been determined by the EU where it will have been 12:00mn in Brussels. I'd never had cause to consider this before and it had me wondering if this had any bearing on 11th Nov 1918 and the cease-fire? Was 11am chosen because it must have been 12:00md in Belgium, and if this was the case, why is this fact never mentioned and the cease-fire is always referred to as having taken place at 11:00am.....or, was the cease-fire at 11:00am Belgium time, and in fact 10am in Britain? Confused? David Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Knotty Posted 2 February , 2020 Share Posted 2 February , 2020 Hi David I think that this section on the LLT should explain the timings. https://www.longlongtrail.co.uk/time-on-the-western-front/ John Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GRANVILLE Posted 3 February , 2020 Author Share Posted 3 February , 2020 Cheers John. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Clifton Posted 3 February , 2020 Share Posted 3 February , 2020 Hello Granville I think you may have fallen into a classic trap, in assuming that the Belgians and the French were one hour ahead of GMT. Until the Germans invaded both countries in 1940, they were both in the same time zone as GMT (including observing Summer Time as appropriate) but the Germans were one hour ahead. After WW2 the French and Belgians did not revert to GMT, but chose to retain the same time as the Germans. The choice of 11 am for the cease-fire had nothing to do with it being noon German time. It was because the Armistice conditions were agreed at 5 am and allowed six hours before the cease-fire came into effect. Ron Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GRANVILLE Posted 3 February , 2020 Author Share Posted 3 February , 2020 24 minutes ago, Ron Clifton said: Hello Granville I think you may have fallen into a classic trap, in assuming that the Belgians and the French were one hour ahead of GMT. Until the Germans invaded both countries in 1940, they were both in the same time zone as GMT (including observing Summer Time as appropriate) but the Germans were one hour ahead. After WW2 the French and Belgians did not revert to GMT, but chose to retain the same time as the Germans. The choice of 11 am for the cease-fire had nothing to do with it being noon German time. It was because the Armistice conditions were agreed at 5 am and allowed six hours before the cease-fire came into effect. Ron Ron, you are correct but thanks for the clarification which I find helpful. David Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David_Underdown Posted 4 February , 2020 Share Posted 4 February , 2020 Though at the other end of the war I have rather assumed that the British ultimatum to Germany expired at 11pm GMT was due to that being midnight Berlin time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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